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Post by buckmana on Feb 23, 2013 20:44:11 GMT -5
I watch the Tremors movies/series in chronological order.
When means I start with 4, then go to 1.
And yes, I know that 4 was made after 1, but there is an inconsistency I became curious about.
At the end of Tremors 4, Hiram Gummer mentions choosing a specific site for his new house and talks about building a basement for it. From what he's describing, it sounds like he is choosing the land that Burt Gummer resides on currently.
But in Tremors 1, Burt says that he chose specifically to move out to Perfection.
I always assuming that the "Founding Families of Perfection" always resided in the area, just bequeathing their property to the next generation up until the present day.
The Changs always owned the market. Juan's ranch ended up being run by Miguel, then Rosalita after him. Tecopa's position was inherited by Harlowe (I assuming Harlowe is a descendent of Tecopa).
So, given this case, I always assumed that the Gummer family had always owned that property, perodically replacing the Gummer home as time went on.
So why would Burt have needed to "return to the area" if his ancestral home had always been there?
Did he live somewhere else for a time or did his ancestors move away from Perfection?
It's quite possible he could have discovered the property when his parents passed away and decided "Hey, I'd like to live there".
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Post by project412 on Feb 24, 2013 9:39:14 GMT -5
Some of Hiram's family likely moved away in the time between T4 and the original film, with the property still remaining in the Gummer family. Burt's parents had probably moved away from Perfection, but when he decided to settle down with Heather the two of them probably went back to the Gummer homestead in Perfection that was still owned by his family.
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